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They say they have not had false positives or false negatives. If that's not a lie, then that's not a lie. It does not mean the test is perfect, but it likely means the false result rate is low.


Im not sure what you think the stronger interpretation is?


I believe that Scrolloway is saying that the "strongest plausible interpretation" of this statement from the OP:

> Our initial data show no false-positives and no false-negatives out of all specimens assayed.

Is:

> the false result rate [of the test] is low

While you originally responded to the statement from the OP with:

> [You're saying that] your test is perfect? Color me skeptical.




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